Why were the English more successful than the Spanish in colonizing?
I think that the English were more successful than the Spanish in colonizing the new world because England was more stable that Spain, they had a powerful army, a better economy system and also because Spanish only wanted gold and richness from the colonies and the English wanted to stay here. This is what Candace is trying to explain us here:
Why was the colonization of the new world so successful?
Its initial success can be attributed to the fact that they were the first European nation that went here and because some religious believes of the natives where they colonized matched what they were living. The English colonists had more success at conquering and colonizing the New World.
Which country was the most successful in colonizing North America?
This is what Candace is trying to explain us here: Although Spain struck a formidable figure during the initial colonization of the New World, it is certain that England was the most successful country when came to settling North America.
Why were the British more successful than the French?
What did the Anglo colonizers do with their original populations?
How did the English colonies get their name?
Why did the Spanish colony of Argentina have mass migration?
What was the GDP of India at the beginning of the British rule?
Why can't the original population be exterminated?
How many countries have been British colonies?
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Why were Spanish colonies not as successful?
Following the dictates of an economic philosophy known as mercantilism, aimed at protecting its own manufacturers, Spain restricted trade, prohibited manufacturing, stifled local industry and handicrafts, impeded the growth of towns, and prevented civilians from selling to soldiers.
What colony was the most successful and why?
Massachusetts Bay Colony was a British settlement in Massachusetts in the 17th century. It was the most successful and profitable colony in New England.
How were the British colonies different from the Spanish colonies?
Whereas the Spanish and Portuguese administered their colonies directly, British colonies in North America were largely autonomous. As long as they paid taxes and followed British trading laws, the colonies were free to make their own decisions.
Why are British colonies more successful Quora?
India saw massive investment in infrastructure projects, the development of cities, the building of hospitals, the introduction of the first vaccination programmes, the increase in access to education both domestically and abroad, etc. Hence many of Britain's colonies have been so successful.
What factors made English colonization successful?
ECONOMIC MOTIVES Economic considerations were undoubtedly the most effective in promoting colonization. 1) Among these was the accumulation of surplus capital and the profit motive. Wealthy businessmen sought opportunities to invest their money.
What factors contributed to the success of the English colonies?
The English colonies were more prosperous and populous than their European competitors for two main reasons: they were private business ventures and were more autonomous than Spanish and French colonies, which were strictly regulated by their ruling monarchs.
How did the goals of English colonization compare to the goals of Spanish colonization?
The Spanish wanted to spread catholicism, gain wealth, and make a name for themselves as a world power. The anti-catholic England wanted to challenge the catholic tyranny of Spain, gain wealth through trade, with mercantilism, and compete with other European powers, such as France and Spain.
What were some of the differences and similarities between Spanish and English colonization?
English used indentures servants. spanish relied more on forced labor. spanish colonies dominated by military personal/missionaries. English has wider variety of workers (farmers, indentured servants) spanish had wide range of race, english was split into puritans and pilgrims.
How were the English colonial settlements similar to that of the Spanish?
The Spanish and English colonies were slightly alike in the poor and unfair treatment of indigenous people and substantially different in religion and economic base. The Spanish and English were slightly comparable in terms of treatment of indigenous people because of enslavement of native people and taking their land.
Was the British Empire successful?
At its height it was the largest empire in history and, for over a century, was the foremost global power. By 1913 the British Empire held sway over 412 million people, 23 per cent of the world population at the time, and by 1920 it covered 35,500,000 km2 (13,700,000 sq mi), 24 per cent of the Earth's total land area.
How did Britain get so rich?
British gained dominance in the trade with India, and largely dominated the highly lucrative slave, sugar, and commercial trades originating in West Africa and the West Indies. Exports soared from £6.5 million in 1700, to £14.7 million in 1760 and £43.2 million in 1800.
Why was Jamestown successful?
Who were the men who caused Jamestown to be successful? John Smith saved the colony from starvation. He told colonists that they must work in order to eat. John Rolfe had the colony plant and harvest tobacco, which became a cash crop and was sold to Europe.
Why was Virginia the best colony?
Virginia has had agricultural success with tobacco and the colony's economy has benefited from it substantially, the colony also has great geographical features such as bays and plenty of rivers as well as a mild climate.
Who was the most successful in colonizing the New World?
EnglandOf all the European countries, England established the firmest foothold in North America. Like the other European countries, England was motivated in part by the lure of both riches and the Northwest Passage.
What was Britain's most successful colony?
India, Britain's most valuable and populous possession, achieved independence as part of a larger decolonisation movement, in which Britain granted independence to most territories of the empire.
Why were the English more successful than the Spanish in colonizing the new world?
I think that the English were more successful than the Spanish in colonizing the new world because England was more stable that Spain, they had a powerful army, a better economy system and also because Spanish only wanted gold and richness from the colonies and the English wanted to stay here.
Why did the English colonists have more success at colonizing the New World?
Its initial success can be attributed to the fact that they were the first European nation that went here and because some religious believes of the natives where they colonized matched what they were living. The English colonists had more success at conquering and colonizing the New World. In that time, many people had the idea ...
What were the factors that contributed to the success of the colonization of the New World?
The success in the colonization of the New World (America) depended of many factors such as the treatment of the natives, the Church, methods of government, the support of the colonists, the role of religion, and also the condition of the country who wanted to colonize.
What were the factors that contributed to England's dominance over Spain and the other European countries that attempted colonization?
Among those reasons were England's strong navy, periods of benign neglect in the colonies, development of capitalism, a strong middle class, success at practicing mercantilis m, superior geographic locale, ...
Which country was the most successful in settling North America?
This is what Candace is trying to explain us here: Although Spain struck a formidable figure during the initial colonization of the New World, it is certain that England was the most successful country when came to settling North America. Several factors contributed to England's dominance over Spain and the other European countries ...
Did the English colonists conquer the New World?
The English colonists had more success at conquering and colonizing the New World. In that time, many people had the idea that the Earth was flat and it ended in some point, and people thought that they would fall when they reached that end. If any other people said something differen...
Why were the British more successful than the French?
The British were ultimately more successful than the Dutch and French in colonizing North America because of sheer numbers. The rulers back in Europe actually made it very difficult for French and Dutch settlers to obtain and manage land. They tended to be stuck on the old European model of feudal land management.
What did the Anglo colonizers do with their original populations?
1) At the four first mentioned countries, the Anglo colonizers practiced with great success the genocide of their original populations of which hardly a trace remains who were replaced with Europeans. Those four countries where the population was replaced and immense territories were captured for the Europeans are all developed countries.
How did the English colonies get their name?
English colonies got a name due to their timely reemployment in place of East India Company.This reemployment of the British Government itself was needed in their view which was thought apt.Then it was also correct that there was some order in judiciary,executive, infrastructure development ( Railways, Postal system,Dams, Roads, quarters for some employees,paper sugar mills, forestry department etc.,) improvements in which were sought by Indians with whom they were in bargaining terms always till their end.
Why did the Spanish colony of Argentina have mass migration?
It had mass immigration from Europe, Italy for example, but also eastern Europe and even Germany because it was a wealthy country after independence. It had infrastructure built by Spain and a better merchant/business culture than Spain (let alone other colonies). Since independence Britain got involved in the wealthy colony and basically imposed dependant deals. When WWII erupted Argentina was dragged down by Europe's demise and since then populism has dominated and impoverished the country.
What was the GDP of India at the beginning of the British rule?
The GDP of India at the beginning of the British rule in the XVIII century was about 25% of the world’s GBP and by the time India obtained independence of the British, after several famines and WWII, plus almost two centuries of explotation by the British, your GDP was reduced to aprox. 4%.
Why can't the original population be exterminated?
It is not the case of most of the territories where the original population could not be exterminated, because there were not so many English and Anglophile Europeans to repopulate them, almost all these countries suffered, and many continue to suffer, the greatest poverty and misery in the world as a consequence of the divisions, occupations, and expropriation of native lands, forced displacements for the creation of reserves, poverty, misery, apartheid, segregation, famines, and cultural destruction, etc, during the British Empire rule.
How many countries have been British colonies?
The answer is easy: Not only the USA (the 13 colonies), Australia, Canada and New Zealand have been British colonies, but there are also about 40 countries or territories that have also been British colonies. What is it that differentiates them?
